Hernia — Inguinal versus Femoral Landmarks in Obstruction

Surgerymedium

A 70-year-old woman, para 7, presents with 2 days of abdominal distension, absolute constipation, and vomiting. Temperature is 37.2 °C and heart rate 94 beats/min. There is a tender, irreducible swelling in the right groin lying above and medial to the pubic tubercle, with no overlying skin changes. Abdominal radiography shows multiple small-bowel air-fluid levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A.Strangulated femoral hernia
  2. B.Obstructed femoral hernia
  3. C.Obstructed inguinal herniaCorrect
  4. D.Strangulated inguinal hernia

Explanation

Two separate judgements decide this case: where the hernia is and whether its blood supply is compromised. The pubic tubercle is the key landmark. An inguinal hernia emerges through the superficial ring above and medial to the tubercle, whereas a femoral hernia passes through the femoral canal and lies below and lateral to it. The swelling here is above and medial, so it is inguinal despite the patient being an elderly multiparous woman, the classic setting for femoral hernia; inguinal hernias are still more common than femoral hernias in women overall. The bowel obstruction with air-fluid levels makes it obstructed. Strangulation requires evidence of ischemia, such as fever, tachycardia, severe constant pain, red or discolored overlying skin, peritonism, leukocytosis or raised lactate, none of which are present. Tenderness alone occurs in both. The distinction matters clinically because strangulation demands immediate operation, while obstruction still needs urgent repair but allows brief resuscitation first. Femoral hernias carry the highest strangulation risk, so a swelling below and lateral to the tubercle should lower the threshold for emergency surgery.

Why each option

A.
Femoral hernias lie below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, and nothing here suggests ischemia such as fever, erythema or peritonism.
B.
The obstruction fits, but a femoral hernia sits below and lateral to the pubic tubercle rather than above and medial.
C.
Correct. A swelling above and medial to the pubic tubercle is inguinal, and bowel obstruction without ischemic signs defines it as obstructed.
D.
The site is inguinal, but strangulation needs features of ischemia such as fever, tachycardia, skin discoloration or peritonism, which are absent.

Reference: HerniaSurge Group — International Guidelines for Groin Hernia Management, Hernia 2018 (2023 update); Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery, 28th ed. 2023 — Hernias

This is one of 3,306 questions in the MedBoardSA SMLE bank, with timed test mode, tutor mode, and progress tracking by topic.

Practise the full bank

More Surgery questions

Browse other topics